Franklin Camp (deceased)
“Then Peter said unto them, repent, and be baptized everyone of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost” (Acts 2:38).
If baptism is not a condition of salvation, why did Peter mention baptism, since he was answering the question of what to do to be saved? (Acts 2:37).
If salvation comes after baptism, would not repentance also follow salvation, since they are joined by the conjunction “and”? Are not repentance and baptism in this verse both for the same purpose?
If salvation comes before baptism, why does Peter say it is for the remission of sins? If the phrase, “for the remission of sins” in Acts 2:38 means because of remission, would not the same phrase in Matthew 26:28 mean because of remission of sins? Did Jesus shed His blood because men were already saved? If Christ did not shed His blood because men were already saved, would it not follow that men are not baptized because they are already saved? The phrase in Matthew 26:28 and Acts 2:38 are identical in both the Greek and English. Would it not be a false doctrine to teach that Christ shed His blood because men were already saved? Likewise, is it not a false doctrine to teach that men are baptized, because they are already saved?
If the people on Pentecost were saved before they were baptized, why were they not added to the church until they were baptized, since such as should be saved were added to the church? The word church means “the called out” and only those baptized were added to the church. If one is saved before he is baptized, would he be saved before he is called out of the world? Is salvation in the world or in Christ? (2 Tim. 2:10).
“Then they that gladly received his word were baptized; and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls” (Acts 2:41). “He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the words that I have spoken will judge him in the last day” (John 12:48). “Then cometh the devil and taketh away the word out of their hearts, lest they should believe and be saved” (Luke 8:12). Can one be saved and not receive the Word? All who received the Word on Pentecost were baptized.
Were there any on Pentecost who were saved that did not receive the Word? Does the Word say “baptized for the remission of sins” or “baptized because of remission of sins”? How is it possible for one to be baptized as the Word teaches, and not be baptized for the remission of sins? If you were not baptized for the remission of sins, you were not baptized as the Word teaches and therefore were not saved.
If not, why not?
-submitted by Jerry Sturgill